Posted 23 December 2007 - 12:56 AM
I haven't been here in a while, but my problems are little changed from the last time. I don't have time to go into everything here, but I do have a question I'm hoping someone can answer.I want to know how Miralax (full 17g dose) differs from milk of magnesia (full 4 tbsp. dose). M.O.M. is the only thing that's worked somewhat for the past 11 years, but my doctor is telling me Miralax might help with the gas and bloating while weaning off the M.O.M. Unfortunately, I noticed the Miralax failed to do much after I got below 3/4 dose (3 Tbsp.) of milk of magnesia. Obviously, it wasn't doing much of anything since that was the minimum dose where M.O.M. ever did anything for me anyway.I got down to no M.O.M., and was left with a few drops of brown liquid the next day. But the Miralax is supposed to work the same way; is it not? It all just brings water in the colon? Then again, why does the milk of magnesia only take a few hours and the Miralax take 1-3 days? I've been on Miralax several weeks, even though just recently without milk of magnesia. Shouldn't it be working? Does whatever make Miralax work more slowly make it less effective?Mostly though, I just can't understand why there is such a big difference if the two laxatives are supposed to have the same mechanism of action.